100% Free Managing-Cloud-Security Exam Dumps Use Real Courses and Certificates Dumps With 207 Questions!
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NEW QUESTION # 105
Which type of data sanitization should be used to destroy data on a USB thumb drive while keeping the drive intact?
- A. Physical destruction
- B. Degaussing
- C. Key revocation
- D. Overwriting
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct approach for sanitizing a USB thumb drive while preserving its usability isoverwriting.
Overwriting involves replacing the existing data on the device with random data or specific patterns to ensure that the original information cannot be recovered. This process leaves the physical device intact, allowing it to be reused securely.
Physical destruction, such as shredding, renders the device unusable. Degaussing only works on magnetic media like hard disks or tapes, not on solid-state or flash-based USB drives. Key revocation applies to cryptographic keys and not to physical devices.
By using overwriting, organizations comply with data sanitization standards while balancing operational efficiency. Many tools exist that perform multi-pass overwrites to meet regulatory requirements such as those from NIST or ISO. This ensures that sensitive data is removed while allowing the device to remain in circulation for continued use.
NEW QUESTION # 106
An organization negotiates a new contract with a cloud provider and wants to ensure that its critical business data is protected if the cloud provider goes out of business. For this reason, the organization wants the cloud provider to store a copy of the organization's data with a neutral third party, which would release the data in case the provider is unable to meet its obligations. Which type of provision should be included in the contract to ensure this?
- A. Escrow
- B. Indemnification
- C. Encryption
- D. Offboarding
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct contractual safeguard is anescrow agreement. Data escrow involves storing critical data or software with a neutral third party, which can release it to the customer if the provider fails to meet obligations, such as bankruptcy or service discontinuation.
Indemnification covers liability, offboarding manages termination processes, and encryption secures data but does not ensure availability if the provider disappears.
Escrow provisions protect business continuity by guaranteeing customer access to data regardless of provider viability. They are especially important for organizations handling mission-critical workloads or long-term regulatory obligations in the cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which strategy will reduce the impact of risk in the business continuity and disaster recovery planning process?
- A. Insurance
- B. Acceptance
- C. Mitigation
- D. Avoidance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk mitigation reduces the impact of risk within BCDR planning. Managing Cloud principles explain that mitigation involves implementing controls and safeguards to lessen the likelihood or severity of adverse events.
Examples include redundancy, backups, failover mechanisms, and monitoring. These measures do not eliminate risk but significantly reduce operational disruption and data loss when incidents occur.
Insurance transfers financial risk, avoidance eliminates activities, and acceptance acknowledges risk without action. Therefore, mitigation is the correct strategy for reducing impact.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which cloud computing characteristic allows consumers to expand or contract required resources automatically?
- A. Resource pooling
- B. Rapid elasticity
- C. Measured service
- D. On-demand self-service
Answer: B
Explanation:
Rapid elasticity is the cloud computing characteristic that allows consumers to automatically expand or contract resources based on demand. Managing Cloud documentation explains that rapid elasticity enables scaling of computing resources in near real time.
This capability allows organizations to handle variable workloads efficiently without manual intervention.
Resources can be provisioned when demand increases and released when demand decreases, optimizing performance and cost.
Measured service focuses on usage tracking, resource pooling shares infrastructure, and on-demand self- service enables user provisioning. Therefore, rapid elasticity is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which data destruction technique involves encrypting the data, followed by encrypting the resulting keys with a different engine, and then destroying the keys resulting from the second encryption round?
- A. Cryptographic erasure
- B. One-way hashing
- C. Overwriting
- D. Degaussing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cryptographic erasure is a secure data sanitization technique that relies on encryption. The process involves encrypting the data, encrypting the keys with a second layer, and then destroying the encryption keys.
Without the keys, the encrypted data becomes unreadable and is effectively destroyed, even though the storage media remains intact.
One-way hashing is used for password storage, not full data destruction. Degaussing is for magnetic media, and overwriting involves physically writing new data over existing sectors.
Cryptographic erasure is widely used in cloud environments where physical media cannot be easily destroyed or reclaimed by customers. It ensures compliance with data retention and privacy regulations while maintaining environmental sustainability by allowing reuse of storage hardware.
NEW QUESTION # 110
What is an appropriate countermeasure given the threat of a power outage of a cloud service provider?
- A. Backup generators
- B. Database replication
- C. Storage array replication
- D. Web application firewalls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Backup generators are an appropriate countermeasure for mitigating the risk of a power outage at a cloud service provider. Managing Cloud principles explain that ensuring continuous power supply is a core responsibility of the provider's physical infrastructure management.
Backup generators, along with redundant power feeds and uninterruptible power supplies, allow data centers to continue operating during power failures. This ensures availability, resilience, and continuity of cloud services.
Database replication and storage replication address data availability, while web application firewalls protect against application-layer attacks. They do not mitigate power loss. Therefore, backup generators are the correct countermeasure.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which data source provides auditability and traceability for event investigation as well as documentation?
- A. Block storage
- B. Database rows
- C. Database logs
- D. Object storage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Database logs provide auditability and traceability required for event investigation and documentation.
Managing Cloud principles state that logs capture detailed records of system activities, including access attempts, changes, transactions, and errors.
These logs allow security and operations teams to reconstruct events, identify unauthorized actions, and support forensic analysis. Database logs are essential for compliance, incident response, and continuous monitoring in cloud environments.
The other options do not provide the same level of chronological detail. Block and object storage hold data but do not record activity history, and database rows store current data states rather than event records.
Therefore, database logs are the correct source for auditability and traceability.
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which activity is within the scope of the cloud provider's role in the chain of custody?
- A. Initiating and executing incident response
- B. Setting data backup and recovery policies
- C. Collecting and preserving digital evidence
- D. Classifying and analyzing data
Answer: C
Explanation:
In cloud environments, the provider's role in thechain of custodyprimarily involvescollecting and preserving digital evidencewhen incidents or investigations occur. Because providers manage the infrastructure, they have direct access to logs, storage systems, and virtual machines necessary for evidence collection.
Backup policies and incident response may involve collaboration, but they remain customer responsibilities in many service models. Data classification and analysis are business-driven tasks, which customers must handle.
Providers must ensure that evidence collection is forensically sound and documented properly to maintain legal admissibility. This responsibility is critical in maintaining trust and ensuring compliance with laws and contractual obligations. It reinforces the shared responsibility model by clearly defining which aspects of digital forensics belong to the provider.
NEW QUESTION # 113
What is the first phase of identity management that is used to assert the identity of the user?
- A. Provisioning
- B. Deprovisioning
- C. Decentralization
- D. Centralization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Provisioning is the first phase of identity management used to assert a user's identity. Managing Cloud documentation explains that identity management begins with establishing and registering a user within an identity system. Provisioning involves creating a digital identity, assigning unique identifiers, and associating credentials that allow the user to be recognized by systems and applications.
This phase forms the foundation for all subsequent identity and access management processes. Without proper provisioning, authentication and authorization cannot occur because the system has no trusted identity to evaluate. Provisioning also includes defining initial roles and access levels based on organizational policies.
Centralization and decentralization describe architectural approaches to managing identities rather than lifecycle phases. Deprovisioning occurs at the end of the lifecycle when access is revoked. Therefore, provisioning is correctly identified as the first phase where the user's identity is established and asserted.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which aspect of strong authentication is part of enterprise risk management?
- A. Federated identities
- B. Privileged user management
- C. Distributed organizations
- D. Entitlement consideration
Answer: B
Explanation:
Privileged user management is a critical aspect of strong authentication within enterprise risk management.
Managing Cloud guidance explains that privileged accounts have elevated access to systems, data, and configurations, making them high-value targets for attackers.
Enterprise risk management requires identifying, protecting, and monitoring these accounts through strong authentication mechanisms such as multi-factor authentication, session monitoring, and just-in-time access.
Controlling privileged access reduces the risk of insider threats, credential compromise, and unauthorized system changes.
Federated identities support access integration, entitlement consideration relates to authorization, and distributed organizations describe structure rather than authentication strength. Therefore, privileged user management is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 115
An organization needs to provide space where security administrators can centrally monitor network traffic and events and respond to threats or outages. What should the organization create?
- A. Emergency response team (ERT)
- B. Disaster response team (DRT)
- C. Security operations center (SOC)
- D. Network operations center (NOC)
Answer: C
Explanation:
A Security Operations Center (SOC) is a centralized facility that allows administrators to monitor, detect, investigate, and respond to cybersecurity events in real time. SOC teams leverage tools such as SIEM (Security Information and Event Management), threat intelligence, and incident response playbooks.
ERTs and DRTs are teams focused on emergencies and disaster recovery, respectively, but they do not provide continuous monitoring. A NOC focuses on performance and availability of IT infrastructure but not on security threats.
By establishing a SOC, organizations ensure 24/7 visibility into security events, coordinated incident handling, and compliance with standards such as ISO 27001 and SOC 2. SOCs are essential in cloud environments where threats evolve rapidly, and centralized expertise is needed to minimize impact.
NEW QUESTION # 116
Which U.S. law requires all publicly traded corporations in the United States to provide information about their financial status and implements controls to ensure the accuracy of the disclosed information?
- A. The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act
- B. The Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data (CLOUD) Act
- C. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)
- D. The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
Answer: A
Explanation:
TheSarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act of 2002was enacted to restore investor confidence after major corporate accounting scandals. It requires publicly traded corporations to maintain accurate financial reporting and implement internal controls to safeguard the integrity of disclosed information.
GLBA focuses on protecting consumer financial data, GDPR is a European regulation governing privacy, and the CLOUD Act addresses cross-border law enforcement access to data. Only SOX directly mandates financial disclosure and corporate accountability.
SOX compliance includes maintaining audit trails, securing data integrity, and ensuring that executives certify financial statements. Failure to comply carries severe penalties, both civil and criminal. For cloud environments, SOX compliance extends to ensuring IT systems used for financial data are secure, monitored, and auditable.
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which description accurately characterizes the movement of applications to the cloud?
- A. In a platform as a service (PaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.
- B. In a software as a service (SaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.
- C. In a desktop as a service (DaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.
- D. In an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment, the cloud service provider (CSP) is responsible for securing the platform. Managing Cloud principles explain that SaaS places the majority of security responsibilities on the provider, including infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, and application security.
Customers primarily manage user access, data usage, and configuration settings, while the provider ensures availability, patching, vulnerability management, and platform protection. This division of responsibility simplifies security management for consumers.
The other options misrepresent shared responsibility boundaries. In IaaS, customers secure the platform, and in PaaS, providers manage infrastructure. Therefore, option D accurately characterizes application movement to the cloud.
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which steps should an organization take to avoid risk when dealing with software licensing?
- A. It should ensure it only uses open-source licenses.
- B. It should ensure it has the correct location to store licenses.
- C. It should ensure it has the correct type of license.
- D. It should ensure it only uses closed-source licenses.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary safeguard against licensing risk is ensuring the organization has thecorrect type of license.
Software licenses define usage rights, limitations, and legal obligations. Using software outside of license terms can lead to legal penalties, financial fines, and reputational damage.
Location of licenses is a management issue, not a risk control. Restricting usage to closed-source or open- source alone is not practical, as both models require compliance with license agreements.
Correct licensing includes verifying user counts, subscription terms, geographic restrictions, and intended use.
It also involves monitoring for unauthorized installations and conducting regular audits. Proper license management ensures legal compliance, cost control, and operational continuity.
NEW QUESTION # 119
Which security threat occurs when authorized users increase their level of access in an unauthorized manner?
- A. Segregation of duties
- B. Escalation of privilege
- C. Man-in-the-middle
- D. Role assumption
Answer: B
Explanation:
Escalation of privilege occurs when an authorized user gains higher access rights than originally granted, without proper authorization. Managing Cloud principles describe this threat as particularly dangerous because it involves legitimate credentials being abused rather than external attackers breaching the system.
In cloud environments, privilege escalation may occur due to misconfigured access controls, vulnerable applications, or excessive permissions. Once elevated access is obtained, a user can modify configurations, access sensitive data, or disrupt services beyond their intended role. This directly violates the principle of least privilege and increases the impact of insider threats.
The other options do not describe this scenario. Man-in-the-middle attacks intercept communications, role assumption is a legitimate access mechanism when properly authorized, and segregation of duties is a control designed to prevent abuse. Therefore, escalation of privilege is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which category of cloud service provides on-demand, self-service access to basic building blocks, such as virtualized servers, block storage, and networking capacity, that can be used to create custom IT solutions?
- A. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)
- B. Platform as a service (PaaS)
- C. Networking as a service (NaaS)
- D. Software as a service (SaaS)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) delivers fundamental computing resources over the cloud. These include virtual machines, block storage, networking, and load balancers. Customers use these resources to build and manage custom IT solutions, while the provider manages the underlying hardware.
PaaS abstracts infrastructure further, providing a development environment for applications without requiring infrastructure management. SaaS delivers fully functional applications over the internet. NaaS is a narrower category focusing on network delivery.
IaaS is the correct answer because it gives maximum flexibility and control compared to the other models, allowing organizations to build tailored environments. It also requires customers to manage operating systems, middleware, and runtime security, making shared responsibility an essential part of the model.
NEW QUESTION # 121
During a financial data investigation, the investigator is unsure how to handle a specific data set. Which set of documentation should they refer to for detailed steps on how to proceed?
- A. Legal rulings
- B. Policies
- C. Procedures
- D. Legal definitions
Answer: C
Explanation:
Proceduresare detailed, step-by-step instructions that guide personnel on how to perform specific tasks in alignment with higher-level policies. In an investigation, when uncertainty arises about handling a dataset, procedures provide the exact operational guidance required.
Policies establish high-level rules (e.g., "financial data must be protected"), while procedures explain how to achieve compliance with those policies (e.g., "verify encryption, label dataset, log access, and escalate to compliance officer"). Legal rulings and definitions are external references but do not provide operational steps.
By following documented procedures, investigators ensure consistency, compliance, and defensibility in legal contexts. This also ensures that evidence is handled properly, supporting admissibility in court and protecting the organization against legal or regulatory challenges.
NEW QUESTION # 122
What is the process of identifying and procuring stored data as evidence for legal purposes?
- A. Chain of custody
- B. Electronic discovery
- C. Forensic imaging
- D. Gap analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer iselectronic discovery (e-discovery). This process involves identifying, collecting, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that may serve as evidence in legal proceedings. E- discovery ensures that relevant data such as emails, logs, or documents is preserved and made available in a legally defensible manner.
Chain of custody refers to documenting the handling of evidence once collected, while forensic imaging creates exact copies of digital media. Gap analysis identifies weaknesses in processes but is unrelated to evidence collection.
E-discovery is essential in both corporate and cloud contexts, as data is often distributed across multiple environments. Cloud providers may assist customers with e-discovery by providing tools for searching, tagging, and exporting relevant data. A sound e-discovery process ensures compliance with legal obligations and prevents spoliation of evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 123
The designers of a proposed data center are evaluating the requirements to use virtualization for the services it provides. Which type of design consideration is being addressed?
- A. Regulatory
- B. Physical
- C. Environmental
- D. Logical
Answer: D
Explanation:
Evaluating the use of virtualization addresses a logical design consideration. Managing Cloud documentation explains that logical design focuses on system architecture, virtualization layers, network segmentation, and service delivery models.
Virtualization determines how workloads are abstracted from physical hardware, how resources are shared, and how isolation is enforced between workloads. Decisions related to hypervisors, virtual machines, containers, and orchestration platforms fall under logical architecture rather than physical layout or environmental controls.
Regulatory considerations involve compliance requirements, environmental considerations include power and cooling, and physical considerations address space and hardware placement. Therefore, virtualization is a logical design consideration.
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which element should a company implement when looking to provide the most secure foundation and smallest attack footprint for virtual servers?
- A. Type 1 hypervisor
- B. Type 2 hypervisor
- C. Application isolation
- D. Application virtualization
Answer: A
Explanation:
A Type 1 hypervisor provides the most secure foundation and smallest attack footprint for virtual servers.
Managing Cloud documentation explains that Type 1 hypervisors run directly on the host hardware without an underlying operating system.
By eliminating the host OS layer, Type 1 hypervisors reduce attack surface and improve isolation between virtual machines. This architecture enhances performance, stability, and security, making it the preferred choice for enterprise and cloud environments.
Type 2 hypervisors run on top of a host operating system, increasing complexity and vulnerability exposure.
Application isolation and virtualization do not provide the same foundational security. Therefore, a Type 1 hypervisor is the correct choice.
NEW QUESTION # 125
An organization is considering a cloud provider that has multivendor pathway connectivity. What does this feature provide?
- A. Connections to several electric providers that are not on the same grid
- B. Connections to several internet service providers
- C. Contracts with fuel providers
- D. Contracts with heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) providers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multivendor pathway connectivityrefers to a cloud provider's ability to maintain connections with multiple internet service providers (ISPs). This ensures redundancy and reduces the risk of outages due to a single ISP failure.
Electric providers, fuel vendors, and HVAC contracts support facility resilience, but they are not directly tied to connectivity. The purpose of multivendor pathways is specifically to guarantee uninterrupted network access and resilience for customer workloads.
By maintaining ISP redundancy, cloud providers improve availability and meet SLA commitments. This capability is especially critical for enterprises requiring high uptime or operating in regions where connectivity disruptions are common. It also provides flexibility in bandwidth management and routing optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 126
Which item determines whether a server has the capacity and the instance allocation to meet a customer's requirements?
- A. Cloud provider
- B. UniFi controller
- C. Instance provider
- D. Cloud controller
Answer: D
Explanation:
The cloud controller determines whether a server has sufficient capacity and appropriate instance allocation to meet customer requirements. Managing Cloud principles explain that the cloud controller manages resource scheduling, provisioning, and allocation across the cloud infrastructure.
It evaluates available compute, memory, storage, and network resources before assigning workloads to physical or virtual servers. This ensures that customer requests are fulfilled without overcommitting resources or degrading performance.
A cloud provider delivers services, an instance provider is not a standard cloud role, and a UniFi controller manages networking devices. Therefore, the cloud controller is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 127
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